CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 10 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions Set 10 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 10 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

1. Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There are 37 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q. 29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer-type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section E – Questions no. from 34 to 36 are case-based questions with three sub-questions and are of 4 marks each.
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map-based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each

Question 1.
The Young Italy Movement was related to which of the following aspects? (1)
(a) Freedom of Italy from the subjugating rule of Ottoman rulers.
(b) A mission to educate the Youth of Italy.
(c) A mission to hold elections in Italy for the first time.
(d) Unification of Italy since, it was divided into various states.
Answer:
(d) Unification of Italy since, it was divided into various states.

Question 2.
The political party having its main objective of upliftment of lower caste people:
(a) Communist Party of India
(b) Bharatiya Janata Party
(c) Indian National Congress
(d) Bahujan Samaj Party
Answer:
(d) Bahujan Samaj Party

Question 3.
Arrange the following events in a chronological order.
I. Paper reached Europe from China.
II. Buddhist missionaries from China introduced hand-printing technology into Japan.
III. Marco Polo brought woodblock printing technology into Europe from China.
IV. Printing is done in China by rubbing paper against the inked surface of wooden blocks.
Codes
(a) IV, II, III, I
(b) IV, II, I, III
(c) III, II, IV, I
(d) II, III, I, IV
Answer:
(b) IV, II, I, III

Question 4.
Which one of the following aspects was common between the writings of B.R. Ambedkar and E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker?
(a) Wrote on the caste system of India
(b) Highlighted the experiences of women
(c) Raised awareness about cultural heritage
(d) Motivated Indians for their national freedom
Answer:
(a) Wrote on the caste system of India

Question 5.
Ansh was giving a speech on one of the eminent personalities of India. During his speech, he mentioned “The great leader joined active politics in 1930” and organized the Depressed Classes Association to uplift the Dalits and demanded separate electorates for Dalits and reservation of seats in educational institutions for them. About your knowledge, Ansh has been referring to. (1)
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Sardar VaIIabhai Patel
(c) Dr BR Ambedkar
(d) Muhammad Ali Jinnah
Answer:
(c) Dr BR Ambedkar

Question 6.
What is meant by the term ‘Feminist’?
(a) The qualities which are considered typical of women.
(b) A person who believes in equal rights and opportunities for women and men.
(c) The belief that men and women are unequal.
(d) The man who looks like the woman.
Answer:
(b) A person who believes in equal rights and opportunities for women and men.

Question 7.
Identify the incorrect statement(s) from the following options. (1)
I. Protected forests are owned by the government but the local people are allowed to collect fuel wood, grazing their cattle without causing serious damage to the forests.
II. Protected forests constitute one-fifth of the total forest cover in India.
III. Haryana, Odisha, Punjab, Bihar, Himachal Pradesh, and Rajasthan have extensive protected forests.
Codes
(a) Only II
(b) Only III
(c) Both II and I
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Only II

Question 8.
Consider the following statements regarding non-democratic regimes and identify the incorrect one from the following.
(a) These types of governments do not have to bother about public opinion.
(b) These types of governments take less time to arrive at a decision.
(c) The principle of individual dignity has legal force in non-democratic regimes.
(d) These often suppress internal social differences.
Answer:
(c) The principle of individual dîgnity has legal force in non-democratic regimes.

Question 9.
India’s territorial water extends up to a distance of ……………………… . (1)
(a) 22.5 Nautical miles
(b) 12 Nautical miles
(c) 19.2 Nautical miles
(d) 200 Nautical miles
Answer:
(b) 12 Nautical miles

Question 10.
Consider the following statements regarding the language policy of the Indian Federation.
1. Hindi was identified as the official language.
2. Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognized as scheduled languages.
3. English can be used along with Hindi for official purposes.
Choose the right option from the following:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) Only 1
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer:
(d) 1,2 and 3

Question 11.
Which of the following can be considered a form of sharing of OWCFS between the governments? (1)
Statement I Division of powers between the Chief Minister and Governor.
Statement II Division of powers between Central and State Legislatures
Statement III Power sharing between Union and the Stales through lists of subjects.
Statement IV Power division between Bureaucracy and Executive.
Codes
(a) Only Statement I is right
(b) Only Statement Ills right
(c) Statement II and IV arc right
(d) Statement II and III are right
Answer:
(d) Statement II and III are right

Question 12.
There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below:
Assertion (A): After primary and secondary, there is a third category of activities that falls under the tertiary sector.
Reason (R): The tertiary sector is also called the service sector.
Options:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Question 13.
Consider the following statements.
I. India being a vast and diverse country the multi-party system was needed to accommodate the vast population.
II. Multi-party system ensures a healthy competition between different parties and prevents dictatorship of a single party.
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect? (1)
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Neither I nor II
(d) Both I and II
Answer:
(c) Neither I nor II

Question 14.
Read the bar graph given below and find out which sector, as compared to 1973-74, has seen maximum improvement in GDI contribution in the year 2013-2014.

(a) Primary Sector
(b) Secondary Sector
(c) Tertiary Sector
(d) Equal Growth in all sectors
Answer:
(a) Primary Sector.

Question 15.
There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes given below. (1)
Assertion (A) Power is shared among different social groups in Belgium.
Reason (R) The Community Government in Belgium has the power regarding cultural, educational, and language-related issues.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 16.
Find the odd one out from the following:
(a) Wheat, Rice, Jowar, Maize
(b) Pineapples, Apricots, Apples, Mangoes
(c) Groundnut, Linseed, Gram, Sesamum
(d) Moong, Urad, Peas, Lentil
Answer:
(c) Groundnut, Linseed, Gram, Sesamum

Question 17.
Underemployment occurs when people (1)
(a) do not want to work.
(b) are working lazily.
(c) are working less than what they are capable of doing.
(d) are not paid for their work.
Answer:
(c) are working less than what they are capable of doing.

Question 18.
Kamlesh has taken a loan of 8 lakhs from the bank to purchase a car. The annual interest rate on the loan is 12.5 percent and the loan is to be repaid in 2 years in monthly instalments. The bank retained the papers of the new car as collateral, which will be returned to Kamlesh only when he repays the entire loan with interest. Analyze the loan information given above, considering one of the following correct options.
(a) Mode of re-payment
(b) Terms of credit
(c) Interest on loan
(d) Deposit criteria
Answer:
(b) Terms of credit

Question 19.
What is the purpose of publishing the HDR for the UNDP? (1)
(a) To tell how to adjust inequalities.
(b) To measure how development has improved human life.
(c) To emphasize the importance of individuals and their ability to unleash their- maximum potential.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) To measure how development has improved human life.

Question 20.
Identify the correct statement/s about the Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
I. In India, it issues currency notes on behalf of the central government.
Ii. It supervises the functioning of informal sources of loans.
III. It monitors the SHGs in actually maintaining cash balance.
IV. It sees that banks give loans only to profit-making businesses and arid traders.
Options:
(a) Only I
(b) I & III
(c) III & IV
(d) I, II & III
Answer:
(a) Only I

Section B
Section B consists of 4 questions of 2 marks each

Question 21.
Study the map thoroughly. Mention any one reason why this highlighted region is famous concerning nationalism in India. (2)

Answer:
The highlighted region i.e Champaran is famous for its movement of Indigo planters. The rebellion of the indigo planters began in Champaran in 1917. It was the first mass movement started by Mahatma Gandhi in India. This uprising took place in the Indian state of Bihar during British rule.

Question 22.
Mention any two roles of the Reserve Bank of India.
OR
What are demand deposits?
Answer:
The two roles of the Reserve Bank of India are:

1. The RBI issues currency notes in India on behalf of the central government.
2. It regulates the cash balances of the banks and regulates their formal operations as well.

OR
People also have the provision to withdraw the money as and when they require it. Since the deposits in the bank accounts can be withdrawn on demand, these deposits are called demand deposits.

Question 23.
Instead of the conservation of one species, why has the focus shifted to the preservation of biodiversity? (2)
Answer:
The shift in focus from the conservation of a single species to the preservation of biodiversity can be attributed to several reasons, like.
By preserving biodiversity, aim to maintain the stability of the ecosystem.
By protecting biodiversity, we acknowledge and appreciate the essential worth of every species.

Question 24.
How has Shillong solved the problem of acute shortage of water?
Answer:

• Shillong has been able to deal with the problem of acute shortage of water by setting up Bamboo drip irrigation systems and Rooftop rainwater harvesting.
• This helped Shillong meet the total water requirement of each household.

Section C
Section C consists of 5 questions of 3 marks each

Question 25.
Write a short note on (1.5+ 1.5)
(i) Automobile Industry
(ii) IT and Electronics Industry
Answer:
(i) Automobile Industry This industry provides quick vehicles for” goods and passengers. In India, there are centers for the manufacture of trucks, buses, cars, motorcycles, scooters, three-wheelers, and multi-utility vehicles. The industry is located around Gurugram, Mumbai, Pune, Chennai, Kolkata, Lucknow, Indore, and Hyderabad. Jamshedpur, Delhi and Bengaluru

(ii) Information Technology (IT) and Electronics Industry It covers products from transistor sets to televisions, telephones, cellphones, telephone exchanges, radars, computers, and other equipment required by the telecommunication and computer industry.

Bengaluru has emerged as the electronic capital of India. Other important centers for electronic goods are Noida, Mumbai, Chennai, Hyderabad, and Pune. Delhi, Kolkata, Lucknow and Coimbatore.

Question 26.
What attracted the Europeans to Africa? Give any three reasons.
OR
How did food travel from one country to another? Give some examples.
Answer:
Africa attracted Europeans for several reasons. These reasons are enumerated as follows:

• Europeans were attracted towards Africa due to its vast minerals and land resources.
• Crop production and plantation opportunities in Africa also attracted them.
• Poor military resistance power of Africa developed an ideal opportunity for Europeans to conquer areas there.

OR
There are many instances of cultural exchange related to food. Some are as follows:

• Noodles travelled west from China to become Spaghetti in far west. It is believed that Arab traders took Pasta to the fifth-century Sicily.
• Many common foods like potatoes, soya, groundnuts, maize, tomatoes, chillies and sweet potatoes were unheard of in the past. These foods were introduced in Asia and Europe after Christopher Columbus discovered America or the New World.
• The new crops could make the difference between life and death. The poor people of Europe began to eat better and live longer and healthier with the introduction of humble potatoes.

Question 27.
Mention any three aspects of life in which women are discriminated against in our Country. (3)
Answer:
The three aspects of life in which women are discriminated against in our country are

• Education The literacy rate among women is only 54 percent as compared with 76 percent among men. When it comes to higher education, a smaller proportion of girls, in comparison to the boys, are allowed to go for higher studies. This is because parents prefer to spend their resources on their son’s education.
• Sex ratio In many parts of India, parents find ways to abort the girl child in a will to have a son. This has led to a decline in the child sex ratio (number of girl children per thousand boys) in the country to merely 1919.
• High-paid Jobs The proportion of women working in highly paid and valued jobs is still smaller than men.

Question 28.
Why there is a need to supervise the banking system by the RBI?
Answer:
The Reserve Bank of India supervises the Banking system due to the following reasons:

• The RBI monitors that the banks maintain a minimum cash balance.
• The RBI ensures that the banks give loans not just to profit-making businessmen and traders but also to small cultivators, small-scale industries, and small borrowers.
• Banks have to submit information to the RBI on how much they are lending, to whom, at what interest rates, etc.

Question 29.
Study the data given below and answer the following questions. (1.5+1.5)

County	Gross National Income (GNI( per capita (2011 PPPS)	Life Expectancy at birth (2017)	Mean Years of Schooling of People aged 25 and above (2017)	HDI Rank in the world (2018)
Sri Lanka	11,326	75.5	10.9	76
India	6,353	68.8	6.4	130
Myanmar	5,567	66.7	4.9	148
Pakistan	5,331	66.6	5.2	150
Nepal	2,471	70.6	4.9	149
Bangladesh	3,677	72.8	5.8	136

Source: Human Development Report, 2018, United Nations Development Programme, New York
(i) Identify the country that most probably has a well-developed healthcare system but a lesser average education than India.
(ii) What do the terms life expectancy and mean years of schooling indicate concerning human development?
Answer:
(i) Nepal has a well-developed healthcare system but a lesser average education than India. The life expectancy of Nepal is 70.6 and the mean year of schooling of people aged 25 and above is 4.9. So, the life expectancy in Nepal is higher than in India which indicates a well-developed healthcare system in the country while the mean year of schooling in Nepal is lower than in India.
(ii) Life expectancy at birth indicates the healthcare status of the country. Good healthcare facilities in the country show a higher life expectancy.

The mean year of schooling indicates the literacy level of the country. The higher the education facilities provided to the public, the higher the mean year schooling which results in higher education status of the country.

Section D
Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each

Question 30.
The first clear expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in 1789. Elucidate.
OR
What was the status of people in Europe during economic hardships in the 1830s?
Answer:
France was a full-fledged territorial state in 1789 under the rule of an absolute monarchy. The estate general, renamed as General Assembly, became an elected body.

• The revolution proclaimed that it was the people who would henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny. A new French flag, the Tricolour, was chosen to replace the former royal standard.
• A centralised administrative system was put in place, and it formulated uniform laws for all citizens within its territory. Internal customs duties and dues were abolished and a uniform system of weights and measures was adopted.
• Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken and written in Paris, became the common language of the nation.
• The revolutionaries further declared that it was the mission and the destiny of the French nation to help other people of Europe to become independent nations.
• With the outbreak of revolutionary wars, the French armies began to carry the idea of nationalism abroad. Thus, France became a nation-state, and the world got a clear expression of nationalism through the French Revolution.

OR
In the 1830s, the employment rate in the economy was lower. People migrated from rural areas to urban areas in search of jobs. Small producers faced stiff competition due to imported cheap machines which were produced in England. where industries were much more advanced. Textile industry faced a major setback as the production used to be carried out in small workshops or homes. The regions of Europe where the aristocracy was still prevalent had peasants who struggled from burden of feudal dues and obligations. The economy suffered from widespread poverty on account of price inflation and bad harvest season.

Question 31.
“Dynastic succession is one of the most serious challenges before the political parties.” Examine the statement. (5)
Or
Discuss the influence of political parties on the government. (5)
Answer:
Dynastic succession is defined as a desire of few to concentrate political powers in their own hands.

• It is one of the most serious challenges before the political parties because most political parties do not practice open and transparent procedures for their functioning.
• there are few ways for an ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party.
• in many parties, the top positions are always controlled by members of one family. This practice is unfair to other members of that party and is also bad for a democracy.
• people who do not have adequate experience or popular support come to occupy positions of power.

or
Political parties are called the government in disguise due to the following reasons

• In most democracies, elections are fought mainly among the candidates put up by political parties.
• Parties put forward different policies and programmes and the voters choose from them.
• Parties play a decisive role in making laws for a country They shape public opinions to raise and highlight issues.
• Parties torn and run governments.
• Opposition role is important in democracy as it voices different views and criticises the government for its failures or wrong policies
• Parties provide people access to government machinery and welfare schemes implemented by governments.

Question 32.
Why was the cotton textile industry concentrated in the cotton growing belt in the early years? Explain.
OR
Classify the pollution created by industries.
Answer:
Cotton textile industry was concentrated in the cotton growing belt in the early years because:

• Availability of raw cotton: Good quality raw cotton was easily available in the states of Maharashtra and Gujarat.
• Moist climate: The moist and humid climate helped in the growth of cotton.
• Transport: A good network of roads and railways helped in procuring raw materials and distribution of finished products.
• Port facilities: The nearness to Mumbai port helped in the export of finished cotton products.
• Cheap labour: Cheap labour was abundantly available in these states.

OR
Industries pollute the environment by polluting air, water and land. They also cause noise pollution. They have increased pollution and resulted in a degraded environment. The pollution created by industries can be classified as:

• Land pollution: It is caused by dumping of non-biodegradable solid waste from industries in landfill sites.
• Air pollution: Industries cause air pollution by the emission of gases from industrial complexes and power generation units. Leakage of poisonous gases and chemicals from chemical industries and burning of fossil fuels in big and small factories also leads to air pollution.
• Water pollution: It is caused when industrial effluents both organic and inorganic are discharged into rivers or other water bodies. Some other common pollutants of the water pollution are fertilisers, pesticides, dyes, soaps, etc.
• Noise pollution: Undesirable noise pollution from industries like construction, running of generators to generate power, electrical drill, etc., is responsible for disturbing our environment.
• Thermal pollution: It occurs when hot water from factories and thermal plants is drained into rivers and ponds before cooling.

Question 33.
Sumit visited a bank to take a home loan. However, the bank might not be willing to lend credit to him. What could be the
possible reasons behind it? (5)
Or
Explain with an example how the terms of credit can be unfavourable for the small farmer. Also suggest some sources by which small farmers can get cheap credit. (3+2)
Answer:
The banks might not be willing to lend certain borrowers like Sumit due to the following reasons

• A few people fail to provide the required set of documents to get a loan.
• Some people have not repaid previous loans. Such borrowers are come in the defaulter’s list.
• Banks might not be willing to lend them further.
• The banks might not be willing to lend entrepreneurs who are going to invest in the business with high risks.
• The banks might not be willing to lend those people who earn irregular incomes o have no fixed salary because in such cases chances of repayment of the loan are very less.

Or
The terms of credit can be unfavourable for the small farmer, for exan,pe, if a farmer borrows money from the bank and during the harvest season his crops are ruined, then he shall not be able to repay the loan to the bank. He might have to sell a part of his land to repay the amount. In, such condition he will further fall into the debt trap The small farmers can get cheap credit from the different sources like banks, agricultural cooperatives, and Self-Help Groups (SHGs).

Section E
Section E consists of 3 Case-based questions of 4 marks each

Question 34.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Gutenberg was the son of a merchant and grew up on a large agricultural estate. From his childhood, he had seen wine and olive presses. Subsequently, he learned the art of polishing stones, became a master goldsmith, and also acquired the expertise to create lead molds used for making trinkets. Drawing on this knowledge, Gutenberg adapted existing technology to design his innovation. The olive press provided the model for the printing press, and moulds were used for casting the metal types for the letters of the alphabet. By 1448, Gutenberg perfected the system. The first book he printed was the Bible. About 180 copies were printed and it took three years to produce them. By the standards of the time this was fast production.

Question 34.1
Who was Gutenberg?
Answer:
Gutenberg was a German inventor, printer, and goldsmith who invented the first-known printing press in the 1430s.

Question 34.2
What were some of the professional skills acquired by Gutenberg?
Answer:
Gutenberg acquired the skills of polishing stones and also attained expertise in the creation of lead moulds used for making trinkets. He became a master goldsmith and designed several jewels.

Question 34.3
What contribution was made by Gutenberg in the field of press?
Answer:
Gutenberg led to the invention of the printing press. In his design, he made use of the casting metal types for the letters of the alphabet. The first book which was printed by the use of this technology was the Bible. There were more than 180 copies that were printed by this technique.

Question 35.
Read the given extract and answer the following questions.
The Chemical industry in India is fast growing and diversifying. It contributes approximately 3 percent of the GDP It is the third largest in Asia and occupies the twelfth place in the world in terms of its size. It comprises both large and small-scale manufacturing units.

Rapid growth has been recorded in both inorganic and organic sectors. Inorganic chemicals include sulphuric acid (used to manufacture fertilizers, synthetic fibers, plastics, adhesives, paints, dyes stuffs), nitric acid, alkalis, soda ash (used to make glass, soaps and detergents, paper), and caustic soda. These industries are widely spread over the country Organic chemicals include petrochemicals, which are used for manufacturing of synthetic fibers, synthetic rubber, plastics, dyestuffs, drugs, and pharmaceuticals.

Organic chemical plants are located near oil refineries or petrochemical plants. The chemical industry is its own largest consumer. Basic chemicals undergo processing to further produce other chemicals that are used for industrial applications, agriculture, or directly for consumer markets.
(i) State one difference between organic and inorganic chemicals. (1)
(ii) Where organic chemical plants are generally located?
(iii) State the features of chemical industries. (2)
Answer:
(i) Organic chemicals include petrochemicals that are used for manufacturing of synthetic fibers, synthetic rubber plastics, dyes stuffs, drugs, and pharmaceuticals.

On the other hand, inorganic chemicals include sulphuric acid, nitric acid, alkalis, soda ash, and caustic soda. They are used to manufacture fertilizers, synthetic fibers, plastics, adhesives, paints, dyes, stuff, etc.

(ii) Organic chemical plants are generally located near oil refineries o petrochemical plants.
(iii) The features of chemical industries are

• It is a major source of employment for a large number of people due to its diverse and fast-growing nature.
• It comprises both large and small-scale manufacturing units.

Question 36.
Read the given extract and answer the following questions.
Belgium and Sri Lanka both are democracies. Yet, they dealt with the question of power-sharing differently. In Belgium, the leaders have realized that the unity of the country is possible only by respecting the feelings and interests of different communities and regions. Such a realization resulted in mutually acceptable arrangements for sharing power. Sri Lanka shows us a contrasting example. It shows us that if a majority community wants to force its dominance over others and refuses to share power, it can undermine the unity of the country.

Question 36.1
How was the power-sharing arrangement in Belgium different from that of in Sri Lanka?
Answer:
In Belgium, the leaders amended the constitution four times to enable everyone to live together within the same country, whereas in Sri Lanka, the Sinhala community adopted majoritarian measures to establish its supremacy over the Sri Lankan Tamils.

Question 36.2
Explain why power sharing is desirable.
Answer:
Prudential Reason: Power sharing ensures the stability of political order. Moral Reason: A democratic rule involves sharing power with those affected by its exercise, and who have to live with its effects.

Secti0n F
Section F consists of Map based questions of 5 marks

Question 37.
(a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct names on the lines
drawn near them. (2)
A. The location of the Indian National Congress Session of 1927.
B. A place where Gandhiji ceremonially violated the Salt Law and manufactured salt by boiling salt seawater.
(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols. (3)
(i) A major port on the South-East coast of India.
(ii) A major sugarcane-producing state.
(iii) A Software Technology Park
(iv) A major dam in Odisha

Answer: