Students can find that CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science with Solutions and CBSE Class 10 Social Science Question Paper 2021 (Term-I) effectively boost their confidence.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Question Paper 2021 (Term-I) with Solutions
Time Allowed: 90 minutes
Maximum Marks: 40
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
- This Question paper contains 60 questions out of which 50 questions are to be attempted. All questions carry equal marks.
- This Question paper consists of four Sections – Section A, B, C and D.
- Section A contains 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from Question No. 1 to 24.
- Section B contains 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions from Question No. 25 to 46.
- Section C contains 12 questions (Case Based Questions). Attempt any 10 questions from Question No. 47 to 58.
- Section D contains 2 Map-based questions. Attempt both the questions.
- The first 20 questions in Section A, 18 questions in Section B and 10 questions in Section C attempted by a candidate will be evaluated.
- There is only one correct option for every Multiple Choice Question (MCQ). Marks will not be awarded for answering more than one option.
- There is no negative marking.
SECTION-A
Attempt any 20 out of 24 questions.
Question 1.
Industrialisation began in which one the following European countries in the second half of the eighteenth century?
(a) Germany
(b) France
(c) Italy
(d) England
Answer:
(d) England
Question 2.
Which type of governments were mainly driven in Europe after the defeat of Napoleon in 1815?
(a) Conservative
(b) Liberal
(c) Federal
(d) Feudal
Answer:
(a) Conservative
Question 3.
Which one of the following group of countries collectively defeated Napoleon in 1815?
(a) Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria
(b) Britain, Russia, Prussia and Australia
(c) Britain, Russia, Netherlands and Germany
(d) Britain, Luxembourg, Germany and Italy
Answer:
(a) Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria
Question 4.
In which one of the following countries did the first liberalist-nationalist upheaval take place in July 1830?
(a) France
(b) Germany
(c) England
(d) Italy
Answer:
(a) France
Question 5.
Who among the following remarked “When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold”?
(a) Lord Byron
(b) Metternich
(c) Johann Herder
(d) Napoleon
Answer:
(b) Metternich
Question 6.
Who among the following was the architect for the unification of Germany?
(a) Otto Von Bismarck
(b) William I
(c) Frederick III
(d) William II
Answer:
(a) Otto Von Bismarck
Question 7.
Who among the following had sought to put together a coherent programme for a unitary Italian Republic during 1830s?
(a) Victor Emmanuel I
(b) Victor Emmanuel II
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini
(d) Count Cavour
Answer:
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini
Question 8.
In which one of the following states is overgrazing the main reason for land degradation?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Punjab
(c) Haryana
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(a) Maharashtra
Question 9.
Identify the soil which ranges from red to brown in colour and saline in nature.
(a) Red soil
(b) Laterite soil
(c) Arid soil
(d) Alluvial soil
Answer:
(c) Arid soil
Question 10.
Which one of the following forces leads to maximum soil erosion in plains?
(a) Wind
(b) Glacier
(c) Running water
(d) Earthquake
Answer:
(c) Running water
Question 11.
Deforestation due to mining has caused severe land degradation in which one of the following states?
(a) Odisha
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Gujarat
Answer:
(a) Odisha
Question 12.
Who among the following was proclaimed king of united Italy in 1861?
(a) Charles I
(b) Victor Emmanuel II
(c) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(d) Nero
Answer:
(b) Victor Emmanuel II
Question 13.
Which one of the following subjects is included in the Union list?
(a) Communication
(b) Trade
(c) Commerce
(d) Irrigation
Answer:
(a) Communication
Question 14.
Which one of the following elements is not included in the Belgium model?
(a) Dutch and French speaking ministers shall be equal in the government.
(b) Many powers of the central government have been given to state governments.
(c) Brussels has a separate government in which both the communities have equal representation.
(d) There is a community government which has special powers of administration.
Answer:
(d) There is a community government which has special powers of administration.
Question 15.
Which one of the following countries is the example of ‘Holding together federation’?
(a) Australia
(b) India
(c) U.S.A
(d) Switzerland
Answer:
(b) India
Question 16.
Which one of the following ethnic communities is in majority in Sri Lanka?
(a) Sri Lankan Tamils
(b) Indian Tamils
(c) Muslims
(d) Sinhalese
Answer:
(d) Sinhalese
Question 17.
Which one of the following subjects is included in the State list?
(a) Banking
(b) Business
(c) Currency
(d) Communication
Answer:
(b) Business
Question 18.
Activities that help in the development of Primary and Secondary sectors come under which one of the following sectors?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Quaternary
Answer:
(c) Tertiary
Question 19.
Identify the correct feature of Unitary form of government from the following options:
(a) There are two or more levels of government.
(b) Different tiers of government govern the same citizens.
(c) Each tier of government has its own jurisdiction.
(d) The sub-units are subordinate to the central government.
Answer:
(d) The sub-units are subordinate to the central government.
Question 20.
At the initial stages of development, which one of the following sectors was the most important of economic activity?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Quaternary
Answer:
(a) Primary
Question 21.
Activities in which natural products are changed into other forms come under which one of the following sectors?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Quaternary
Answer:
(b) Secondary
Question 22.
The products received by exploiting natural resources come under which one of the following sectors?
(a) Quaternary
(b) Tertiary
(c) Secondary
(d) Primary
Answer:
(d) Primary
Question 23.
Which one of the following factors is mainly responsible for declining water level in India?
(a) Irrigation
(b) Industrialisation
(c) Urbanisation
(d) Over-utilization
Answer:
(d) Over-utilization
Question 24.
Which one of the following subjects is included in the Concurrent List?
(a) Trade
(b) Commerce
(c) Agriculture
(d) Marriage
Answer:
(d) Marriage
SECTION-B
Attempt any 18 out of 22 questions.
Question 25.
Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the most appropriate option.
Assertion (A): After Russian occupation in Poland, the Russian language was imposed on its people.
Reason (R): The use of Polish soon came to be a symbol of struggle against Russian dominance.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Question 26.
Read the facts regarding the Revolution of the Liberals in Europe during 1848 and choose the correct option:
1. Abdication of the monarch
2. Universal male suffrage had been proclaimed
3. Political Rights to women were given
4. Freedom of the press had been asked for
(a) Only 1 and 2 are correct.
(b) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
(c) Only 1 and 4 are correct.
(d) Only 1,2 and 4 are correct.
Answer:
(d) Only 1,2 and 4 are correct.
Question 27.
Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the most appropriate option.
Assertion (A): Weavers in Silesia had led a revolt against contractors in 1845.
Reason (R): Contractors had drastically reduced their payments.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Question 28.
On which of the following modern aspects did the new Germany place a strong emphasis?
1. Currency
2. Banking
3. Legal system
4. Demography
(a) Only 1 and 2 are correct.
(b) Only 2 and 3 are correct.
(c) Only 3 and 4 are correct.
(d) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Answer:
(d) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Question 29.
Which one of the following Italian states was ruled by an Italian princely house?
(a) Papal State
(b) Lombardy
(c) Venetia
(d) Sardinia-Piedmont
Answer:
(d) Sardinia-Piedmont
Question 30.
Identify the characteristics of Cavour among the following and choose the correct option:
1. He was an Italian statesman.
2. He spoke French much better than Italian.
3. He was a tactful diplomat.
4. He belonged to a Royal family.
(a) Only 1 and 2 are correct.
(b) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
(c) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
(d) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
Answer:
(b) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Question 31.
Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the most appropriate option.
Assertion (A): In Britain, the formation of the nation-state was not the result of a sudden upheaval.
Reason (R): Ethnic groups of Britain extended their influence.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Question 32.
Which among the following is not a problem of resource development?
(a) Depletion of resources for satisfying the greed of few individuals
(b) Accumulation of resources in few hands
(c) Indiscriminate exploitation of resources
(d) An equitable distribution of resources
Answer:
(d) An equitable distribution of resources
Question 33.
Which one of the following human activities has contributed most in land degradation?
(a) Deforestation
(b) Overgrazing
(c) Mining
(d) Over-irrigation
Answer:
(a) Deforestation
Question 34.
Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the most appropriate option:
Assertion (A): Indian farmers should diversify their cropping pattern from cereals to high value crops.
Reason (R): This will increase income and reduce environmental degradation simultaneously.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertiort (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Question 35.
Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the most appropriate option:
Assertion (A): Majority community is dominant in a few democratic states.
Reason (R): Dominance can undermine the unity of the country.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Question 36.
Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the most appropriate option:
Assertion (A): Power sharing is good.
Reason (R): It helps to reduce the possibility of conflicts between social groups.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Question 37.
Choose the correct pair among the following:
| Country | Administration |
| Russia | Unitary |
| China | Federal |
| Canada | Unitary |
| Argentina | Federal |
Answer:
(d)
Question 36.
Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the most appropriate option:
Assertion (A): The distrust between Sinhalese and Tamil communities turned into wide¬spread conflict in Sri Lanka.
Reason (R): 1956 Act recognized Sinhala as the only official language.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Question 39.
Identify ‘Horizontal power sharing’ arrangements among the following in modern democracies:
(a) Different organs of government
(b) Governments at different levels
(c) Different social groups
(d) Different parties, pressure groups and movements
Answer:
(a) Different organs of government
Question 40.
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option:
| Column-I | Column-II |
| I. Union List | A. Computer-related matter |
| II. State List | B. Forest |
| III. Concurrent List | C. Police |
| IV. Subsidiary Matters | D. Defence |
(a) I-D, II-C, III—B, IV-A
(b) l-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
(c) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
(d) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
Answer:
(a)
Question 41.
Which of the following countries is an example of ‘coming together’ federation?
(a) United States of America
(b) India
(c) Spain
(d) Belgium
Answer:
(a) United States of America
Question 42.
What is not an integral part of the government?
(a) Office of the Prime Minister
(b) Legislature
(c) Executive
(d) Judiciary
Answer:
(a) Office of the Prime Minister
Question 43.
Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the most appropriate option:
Assertion (A): Kerala has low Infant Mortality Rate.
Reason (R): Kerala has adequate provision of basic health and education facilities.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Question 44.
Suppose there are four families in your locality, the average per capita income of whom is ₹10,000. If the income of three families is ₹6,000, ₹8000 and ₹14,000 respectively, what would be the income of the fourth family?
(a) ₹5,000
(b) ₹10,000
(c) ₹12,000
(d) ₹15,000
Answer:
(c) ₹12,000
Explanation: Per capita Income = ₹10,000
Total income of 4 people = ₹10,000 × 4 = ₹ 40,000
Income of 3 people = ₹6,000 + ₹8,000 + ₹14,000 = ₹28,000
∴ Income of 4th family = ₹40,000 – ₹28,000 = ₹12,000
Question 45.
Which one of the following sectors shows the highest share in Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in India?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Quaternary
Answer:
(c) Tertiary
Question 46.
Which one of the following sectors shows the highest share in employment in 2017-18, in – India?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Quaternary
Answer:
(a) Primary
SECTION-C
This section consists of two cases—A and B. There are total of 12 questions in this section. Attempt any 5 question from each case.
Case A: Read the source given below. Attempt any 5 questions out of 6 questions (Question No. 47 – 52) questions.
Jhumming: The ‘slash and burn’ agriculture is known as ‘Milpa’ in Mexico and Central America, ‘Conuco’ in Venezuela, ‘Roca’ in Brazil, ‘Masole’ in Central Africa, ‘Ladang’ in Indonesia, ‘Ray’ in Vietnam.
In India, this primitive form of cultivation is called ‘Bewar’ or ‘Dahiya’ in Madhya Pradesh,. ‘Podu’ or ‘Penda’ in Andhra Pradesh, ‘Pama Dabi’ or ‘Koman’ or ‘Bringa’ in Odisha, ‘Kumari’ in Western Ghats, ‘Valre’ or ‘Waltre’ in South-eastern Rajasthan, ‘Khil’ in the Himalayan belt, ‘Kuruwa’ in Jharkhand, and ‘Jhumming’ in the North-eastern region.
Question 47.
How is Primitive Subsistence Agriculture related with Jhumming?
(a) It is based on shifting cultivation
(b) It is intensive in nature
(c) It is based on plantation cultivation
(d) It depends upon cash crop
Answer:
(a) It is based on shifting cultivation
Question 48.
The ‘slash and burn’ agriculture is known as ‘Conuco’ in which one of the following countries?
(a) Venezuela
(b) Brazil
(c) Indonesia
(d) Mexico
Answer:
(a) Venezuela
Question 49.
The ‘slash and burn’ agriculture is known as ‘Roca’ in which one of the following countries?
(a) Mexico
(b) Indonesia
(c) Brazil
(d) Venezuela
Answer:
(c) Brazil
Question 50.
Identify the major problem of Jhumming cultivation.
(a) Single crop dominance
(b) Modern inputs
(c) High cost
(d) Low production
Answer:
(d) Low production
Question 51.
In India ‘slash and burn’ agriculture is known as ‘Bewar’ in which one of the following States?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Jharkhand
Answer:
(b) Madhya Pradesh
Question 52.
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option:
| Column-I | Column-II |
| (i) Andhra Pradesh | A. Kuruwa |
| (ii) Odisha | B. Valre |
| (iii) Rajasthan | C. Penda |
| (iv) Jharkhand | D. Pama Dabi |
(a) I-C, II-D, III—B, IV-A
(b) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
(c) I-B, II-A, III—D, IV-C
(d) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
Case A: Read the source given below. Attempt any 5 questions out of 6 questions (Question No. 53-58) questions.
Take the case of Laxmi with her two-hectare plot of unirrigated land. The government can spend some money or banks can provide a loan, to construct a well for her family to irrigate the land. Laxmi will then be able to irrigate her land and take a second crop, wheat, during the rabi season. Let us suppose that one hectare of wheat can provide employment to two people for 50 days (including sowing, watering, fertiliser application and harvesting). So . two more members of the family can be employed in her own field. Now suppose a new dam is constructed and canals are dug to irrigate many such farms. This could lead to a lot of employment generation within the agriculture sector itself reducing the problem of underemployment.
Answer:
(a)
Question 53.
Which one of the following economic sectors is Laxmi related to?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Quaternary
Answer:
(a) Primary
Question 54.
Which one of the following categories of farmers is Laxmi related to?
(a) Big
(b) Medium
(c) Marginal
(d) Agricultural labourer
Answer:
(c) Marginal
Question 55.
In which one of the following sectors is underemployment seen at its maximum?
(a) Industry
(b) Agriculture
(c) Trade
(d) Commerce
Answer:
(b) Agriculture
Question 56.
How does construction of dams and canals create employment in large numbers in rural areas?
(a) Large number of engineers are needed
(b) Large number of technicians are also required
(c) Adjustment of large number of unskilled labourers
(d) Executives and administrators can easily be adjusted
Answer:
(c) Adjustment of large number of unskilled labourers
Question 57.
Which one of the following is the main result of increasing irrigation facilities in the field of agriculture?
(a) Increase in production
(b) Increase in expenditures
(c) Change in cropping pattern
(d) Promote high yielding crops
Answer:
(a) Increase in production
Question 58.
Which one of the following means of irrigation generally comes under the Public Sector ?
(a) Well
(b) Tubewell
(c) Tank
(d) Canal
Answer:
(d) Canal
SECTION-D
Map-Based Questions—59 and 60 are Mandatory.
Question 59.
On the given outline political map of India, ‘A’ is marked as a Dam. Identify it from the following options:
(a) Tehri
(b) Sardar Sarovar
(c) Hirakud
(d) Nagarjuna Sagar
Answer:
(c) Hirakud
Question 60.
On the same map ‘B’ is marked as the largest ‘Jute’ Producer state. Identify it from the following options.
(a) West Bengal
(b) Bihar
(c) Assam
(d) Odisha
Note: The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu ofQ.No. 59 and 60 (Map-Based Questions).
Answer:
(a) West Bengal
Question 59.
Which one of the following dams is located in Odisha?
(a) Tehri
(b) Sardar Sarovar
(c) Hirakud
(d) Nagarjuna Sagar
Answer:
(c) Hirakud
Question 60.
Which one of the following States is the largest producer of Jute?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Bihar
(c) Assam
(d) Odisha
Answer:
(a) West Bengal
